#Nudity #Lust #Bible #Christianity #Study #Politics How would you object to this article section?
Do you think that this specific verse, which many seem to suggest refers to sexual arousal, may simply be a repeat of what was said in the OT? Like do you think those two things are separate, that a man can e.g, smell a neighbor's burger on the grill, and have their mouth water, without sinning; that it only becomes sin if one seeks to obtain it when it doesn't belong to them? Or is there more to the issue do you think, perhaps with arousal, the two are more intertwined? What do you think?
(see comments for article and other related links)
