#caught@Again " 1. we see negative VE consistently in MANY other studies.
2. VE continues to go negative in that study consistent over time… how can they explain that?
3. if it was behavior differences between vaxed and unvaxed that accounts for the bias, then how come people who got Moderna behave DIFFERENTLY than people who got Pfizer?!?"

https://stevekirsch.substack.c....om/p/reuters-fact-ch

stevekirsch.substack.com

Reuters did a "fact check" of the negative Vaccine Efficacy in the Denmark study and the study author used a hand waving argument to conclude the negative VE is due to a bias. What do you think?